Biblical Hebrew Forum

[davedonnelly1 AT juno.com]

Hi James,

In your last post on the  [b-hebrew] topic: " Reading Jehovah in Psalm
16:2 and in Psalm 110:1"
you asked me a question you have asked me many times,
and I have not answered in a way that you approved of,
although I have answered it as honestly as I could,
at the time I answered you.

You asked: 

>>>
I still don't see any clear statement of a position you hold here Dave.
Could you spit it out plain and clear? 
Which vocalization/translation do you support? 
No need to repeat the issues to me. 
I am more than aware of them.
This is a subject 
I've looked into many times before.

James Christian
>>>

James, 

As you know,
I profess to be a Bible Believing English speaking Christian
but I am posting on a B-Hebrew Discussion Board!!! 

The New Testament that I read 
[ and which Jewish persons are not subject to]
says  at II Timothy 3:16

>>>

16. All Scripture is given by inspiration of God, and is profitable for
doctrine, for reproof, for correction, for instruction in righteousness 
17. That the man of God may be perfect, thoroughly furnished unto all
good works 

>>>

James I am caught between Christian Scriptures that clearly state that:
 All Scripture is given by inspiration of God
and the teaching of various Hebrew Scholars 
that teach both on B-hebrew and 
on other cites on the Internet! 

Obviously the fingerprints of the Masoretes are all over the Leningrad
Codex of 1008 -1010 A,D.
as well as all over the Ben Chayyim Hebrew Text of 1525 A.D.,
YET CHRISTIAN SCRIPTURES STATE CLEARLY THAT "ALL SCRIPTURE IS GIVEN BY
INSPIRATION OF GOD"!

The Question that I am not able to answer is:

DO HEBREW SCHOLARS HAVE AUTHORITY FROM THE GOD OF ABRAHAM , THE GOD OF
ISAAC,  AND THE GOD OF JACOB TO DOGMATICALLY INFORM SCRIPTURE BELIEVING
CHRISTIANS HOW TO RENDER GOD'S NAME?????? 

Dave Donnelly
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>From klriley AT alphalink.com.au  Wed Jun 23 08:47:04 2010
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Date: Wed, 23 Jun 2010 22:46:52 +1000
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Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Reading Jehovah in Psalm 16:2 and in Psalm 110:1
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Dave

While I share some of your assumptions, I don't share all, so you are 
not under any compulsion to accept my answer.  I don't believe anyone 
has the right to *dogmatically* inform any of us how to render God's 
name, unless that person should be a divinely attested prophet given 
that specific responsibility by God.  I do believe that anyone with a 
good knowledge of Hebrew has the right to *suggest* how to render that 
name from a linguistic basis, and to advance the reasons for doing so.  
Scripture believing Christians,  as well as the rest of us 
garden-variety Christians, Jews, Muslims, Buddhists, and believers in 
anything or nothing, all have the right to make up our own minds on the 
subject as we are or are not convinced by the arguments put forward.

I must say, I admire the way you are able, by implication, to 
potentially offend most of the non-Christians and many of the Christians 
on this list.  Not many posters manage to achieve that.  Perhaps an 
off-list post to James may have been wiser.

Kevin Riley

On 23/06/2010 10:27 PM, davedonnelly1 AT juno.com wrote:
> The Question that I am not able to answer is:
>
> DO HEBREW SCHOLARS HAVE AUTHORITY FROM THE GOD OF ABRAHAM , THE GOD OF
> ISAAC,  AND THE GOD OF JACOB TO DOGMATICALLY INFORM SCRIPTURE BELIEVING
> CHRISTIANS HOW TO RENDER GOD'S NAME??????
>
> Dave Donnelly
>
>