Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Petr Tomasek <tomasek AT etf.cuni.cz>]

On Mon, May 24, 2010 at 11:22:49PM -0400, Barry wrote:
> In Psalm 138:2:
> 
> כִּי־הִגְדַּלְתָּ עַל־כָּל־שִׁמְךָ אִמְרָתֶךָ
> 
> Is it possible to see KoL as a substantive object of (aL, "above 
> everything," and then SheMKa and )iMRaThKa (hopefully that transliteration 
> is ballpark) as direct objects of the verb, perhaps as a hendiadys?
> 
> Thanks in advance,

What would it mean then? What's wrong with "על כל שמך" beeing
simply an adverbial?

Petr Tomasek

-- 
Petr Tomasek <http://www.etf.cuni.cz/~tomasek>
Jabber: butrus AT jabbim.cz

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EA 355:001  DU DU DU DU
EA 355:002  TU TU TU TU
EA 355:003  NU NU NU NU NU NU NU
EA 355:004  NA NA NA NA NA
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