Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Calvin Park <cpark2005 AT gmail.com>]

Richard,

Yes, it has something to do with Hebrew aspect. The Hebrew verbal
system is a complex beast which scholars are still striving to come to
terms with.

So, in regards to Ex. 3.14, we have a yiqtol form (variously called
imperfect, prefix, etc). Now, some scholars (e.g., T. Muraoka), think
that the yiqtol is a future tense. Many others think that a better
explanation is aspect, and so the yiqtol form indicates imperfective
(i.e., unbounded) aspect. Either way, even scholars who call the
yiqtol a future tense allow for it to have various meanings (including
past and present).

That may be more information than you wanted. Anyway, the short answer
is that translators often translate the verb in Ex. 3.14 as a present
tense because it is quite common for a yiqtol to represent an action
that occurs in the present (from the perspective of the speaker).

Hope this helps,
Calvin Park

On Thu, Dec 17, 2009 at 7:29 PM, Richard <aaa AT endlyss.com> wrote:
> Hello,
>
> This is my first post to this list.
>
> I am wondering how the word "Ehyeh" Exodus 3:14 can be translated either "I
> will be" or "I am".
>
> In the Hebrew it looks like it should read only "I will be", I don't see how
> some translations have it as "I am".
>
> Is this something to do with "aspect" in the OT Hebrew thinking? I see no
> clues as to why this would be in this instance.
>
> This has been bugging me for a long time now.
>
> Thank you
>
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