Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Pere Porta <pporta7 AT gmail.com>]

Strictly speaking this means "I will be". But it is often translated as a
present ---> look at Ruth 2:13 because the context advises this.

Pere Porta
(Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain)

On Fri, Dec 18, 2009 at 2:41 AM, Calvin Park <cpark2005 AT gmail.com> wrote:

> Richard,
>
> Yes, it has something to do with Hebrew aspect. The Hebrew verbal
> system is a complex beast which scholars are still striving to come to
> terms with.
>
> So, in regards to Ex. 3.14, we have a yiqtol form (variously called
> imperfect, prefix, etc). Now, some scholars (e.g., T. Muraoka), think
> that the yiqtol is a future tense. Many others think that a better
> explanation is aspect, and so the yiqtol form indicates imperfective
> (i.e., unbounded) aspect. Either way, even scholars who call the
> yiqtol a future tense allow for it to have various meanings (including
> past and present).
>
> That may be more information than you wanted. Anyway, the short answer
> is that translators often translate the verb in Ex. 3.14 as a present
> tense because it is quite common for a yiqtol to represent an action
> that occurs in the present (from the perspective of the speaker).
>
> Hope this helps,
> Calvin Park
>
> On Thu, Dec 17, 2009 at 7:29 PM, Richard <aaa AT endlyss.com> wrote:
> > Hello,
> >
> > This is my first post to this list.
> >
> > I am wondering how the word "Ehyeh" Exodus 3:14 can be translated either
> "I
> > will be" or "I am".
> >
> > In the Hebrew it looks like it should read only "I will be", I don't see
> how
> > some translations have it as "I am".
> >
> > Is this something to do with "aspect" in the OT Hebrew thinking? I see no
> > clues as to why this would be in this instance.
> >
> > This has been bugging me for a long time now.
> >
> > Thank you
> >
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-- 
Pere Porta
"Ei nekrói ouk eguéirontai, fágomen kai píomen áurion gar apothnéskomen"
(1Cor 15:32)