Biblical Hebrew Forum

[James Read <J.Read-2 AT sms.ed.ac.uk>]

An analysis of the Greek translation does give some insight into how  
ehyeh asher ehyeh was understood:

καὶ εἶπεν ὁ θεὸς πρὸς *μωυσῆν ἐγώ εἰμι ὁ ὤν καὶ εἶπεν οὕτως ἐρεῖς τοῖς  
υἱοῖς Iσραηλ ὁ ὢν ἀπέσταλκέν με πρὸς ὑμᾶς

I don't know if that will render but it does show that the first ehyeh  
is translated as a self introduction i.e. 'I am ...'. While the second  
is translated as a name after the introduction. This is simple to see  
because further down 'ho wn' is repeated further down as the name when  
he says 'ho wn sent me to you'. The sense seems to be of perpetual  
being in some way and is reminiscent of 'the one that was, the one  
that is and the one that will be'.

I won't go any further because it's hard to keep the discussion  
related to b-hebrew.

James Christian


Quoting Oun Kwon <kwonbbl AT gmail.com>:

> On Fri, Sep 11, 2009 at 4:35 AM, James Read <J.Read-2 AT sms.ed.ac.uk> wrote:
> > I can see your reasoning here Doug but there are many complications  
> >  it poses:
> >
> > Firstly, you assume nobody to be familiar with the name of YHWH in
> > that time. There are lots of indications that this is not correct.
> > Older manuscripts of the LXX still have YHWH in hebrew characters were
> > newer versions have KS or kyrios in Greek script. A lot of reforms and
> > standardisations happened in Constantines day and a lot of MSS were
> > lost in and as a result of this period.
> >
> > I won't go into the second point because I'll be going too far out of
> > the boudaries of b-hebrew discussion. Write to me off list if you wish.
> <clipped>
> > James Christian
>
> I'm not sure how exact the boundaries are. Be that it may, I did learn
> from Doug-Harold exchange. It would certainly give a seed for  further
> study and contemplation, etc.
>
> Yes, many complications it poses. However, it ALL depends on how
> others respond and answer the question Doug asked straight.
>
> If I may put something about 'name' from a lay: In the expression
> 'saved in the name', the 'name' does not refer to a name that which
> can be spelled or pronounced or invoked, or etymologized, but, as
> Harold said, it refers to what the name stands for.   [This goes for
> also those occurrences in N.T.]
>
> If I may go just one ounce more; 'ehyeh in Exo 3:14 may give some
> confusion by traditional translations, because, as I understand, the
> first one is copulative while the second is existential verb 'be'.
> Speaking of Greek expression EGW EIMI may not be superimposed on the
> Hebrew precisely, because the latter is 'I'm', while the former is 'I
> (emphatic) am'. And the second one is hO WN. (Cf. LXX EGW EIMI hO WN.)
>
> Please correct me, if any.
>
> Oun Kwon.



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