Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Doug Belot" <dbelot AT bigpond.net.au>]

Harold many thanks for your reply , now , if George lets me answer , may I 
say this, when the New Testament was written no one had ever heard the name 
Yahweh or Jehovah, neither name existed .

Yet Jesus , (as we commonly call Yeheshuha ) made it quite clear that He had 
"manfiested/ declared" His fathers name , surely the same name as in Ps 
54:1, so Gods name was well known .

Why did they not use the name Jehovah or Yahweh when they were aked to 
baptise in the father name , Math 28:18.  Why did they baptise in only the 
name of Jesus , Acts 2:38 , 10:48 . 19:5.

Why did Jesus claim the role of I Am in John 8:24 and John 8:58 , with John 
8:24 giving the penalty that if you did not delare that Jesus was the  IAM 
you would die in your sins.

What do you think declaring "Jesus is Lord" means , and remember Paul here 
in Rom 10:1-13 is rebuking a Jewish audience ,  what would a Jewish person 
answer in the days of Paul if you asked him who was the Lord .

What name do you think most fits in as the name of "Him who will save 
Israel" , as pictured in Jer 23:6 .

doug belot







----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Harold Holmyard" <hholmyard3 AT earthlink.net>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Friday, September 11, 2009 7:58 AM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Biblical Hebrew


> Doug,
> > Thats good to hear ,I always like a decent answer,  my question , to all
> > believers of both the new and old testaments comes from  these two 
> > following
> > verses...
> >
> > Ps 54:1   "save me o god by your name"
> > Joel 2:32 "Whoever calls on the name of the LORD will be saved" ,
> >
> > These two from the Old talk about being saved by the "name" of God, and 
> > of
> > course we have trouble defining what that name is , but the with the New 
> > T,
> > we have  statement that tells us that only one name can be used for
> > salvation. Surely it must be the same name that Acts 4:12 refers to ..
> >
> > Acts 4:12  "Nor is there salvation in any other for there is only one 
> > name
> > given under heaven by which men may be  saved"
> >
> > Do not the exclusive nature of there being only one name by which men may 
> > be
> > saved  demand that the name being suggested in Acts 4:12,  Jesus/Yeheshua 
> > ,
> > is the same name in both salvation verses in the Old Testament.
>
> HH: The name of Jesus had not be revealed in the Old Testament era in
> connection with the person we know as Jesus, so it was assuredly not the
> name referred to in Psalm 54. In Hebrew a person's name represented his
> character as well as being an identifying tag. But the God of Israel had
> a name, Yahweh. But when the psalmist talks this way, he refers to all
> that God's name represents. God identified himself as Yahweh, the God of
> Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. Most English Bibles translate Yahweh as LORD,
> but it was a name. He was the God who was so evident in the lives of
> Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. One thing God's name seems to have
> represented was his presence to aid his people. This is based in part on
> the meaning of the word Yahweh, which is something like "He is," or "He
> will be." and in part in the context in which God revealed it to Moses.
> God also spoke of himself as named "I am" or "I will be," apparently
> implying in part that he would be there for his people:
>
> Ex 3:11 And Moses said to God, Who am I to go to Pharaoh and take the
> children of Israel out of Egypt? 12 And he said, Truly I will be with
> you; and this will be the sign to you that I have sent you: when you
> have taken the children of Israel out of Egypt, you will give worship to
> God on this mountain.
> 13  And Moses said to God, When I come to the children of Israel and say
> to them, The God of your fathers has sent me to you: and they say to me,
> What is his name? what am I to say to them?
> 14 And God said to him, I AM WHAT I AM: and he said, Say to the children
> of Israel, I AM has sent me to you. 15 And God went on to say to Moses,
> Say to the children of Israel, The Lord, the God of your fathers, the
> God of Abraham, of Isaac, and of Jacob, has sent me to you: this is my
> name for ever, and this is my sign to all generations.
>
> HH: The English could be obscuring a bit what is happening in the text.
> The form of the verb is the same in several instances, and it is a form
> that can also mean "I will be." It occurs in verse 12: "Truly, I will be
> ('ehyeh) with you. Then it occurs in verse 14: "I AM ('ehyeh) WHAT I AM
> ('ehyeh)." "Say to the children of Israel, I AM ('ehyeh) has sent me to
> you." So one could translate "I WILL BE WHAT I WILL BE." But the Hebrew
> could convey both the present or the future, and the translator felt
> that the present has some implications that the future does not (God
> does not only exist in the future).
>
> Yours,
> Harold
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