Skip to Content.
Sympa Menu

b-hebrew - Re: [b-hebrew] Biblical Hebrew

b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org

Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum

List archive

Chronological Thread  
  • From: "Doug Belot" <dbelot AT bigpond.net.au>
  • To: "Harold Holmyard" <hholmyard3 AT earthlink.net>, <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Biblical Hebrew
  • Date: Fri, 11 Sep 2009 15:37:53 +1000

Harold many thanks for your reply , now , if George lets me answer , may I say this, when the New Testament was written no one had ever heard the name Yahweh or Jehovah, neither name existed .

Yet Jesus , (as we commonly call Yeheshuha ) made it quite clear that He had "manfiested/ declared" His fathers name , surely the same name as in Ps 54:1, so Gods name was well known .

Why did they not use the name Jehovah or Yahweh when they were aked to baptise in the father name , Math 28:18. Why did they baptise in only the name of Jesus , Acts 2:38 , 10:48 . 19:5.

Why did Jesus claim the role of I Am in John 8:24 and John 8:58 , with John 8:24 giving the penalty that if you did not delare that Jesus was the IAM you would die in your sins.

What do you think declaring "Jesus is Lord" means , and remember Paul here in Rom 10:1-13 is rebuking a Jewish audience , what would a Jewish person answer in the days of Paul if you asked him who was the Lord .

What name do you think most fits in as the name of "Him who will save Israel" , as pictured in Jer 23:6 .

doug belot







----- Original Message ----- From: "Harold Holmyard" <hholmyard3 AT earthlink.net>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Friday, September 11, 2009 7:58 AM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Biblical Hebrew


Doug,
Thats good to hear ,I always like a decent answer, my question , to all
believers of both the new and old testaments comes from these two following
verses...

Ps 54:1 "save me o god by your name"
Joel 2:32 "Whoever calls on the name of the LORD will be saved" ,

These two from the Old talk about being saved by the "name" of God, and of
course we have trouble defining what that name is , but the with the New T,
we have statement that tells us that only one name can be used for
salvation. Surely it must be the same name that Acts 4:12 refers to ..

Acts 4:12 "Nor is there salvation in any other for there is only one name
given under heaven by which men may be saved"

Do not the exclusive nature of there being only one name by which men may be
saved demand that the name being suggested in Acts 4:12, Jesus/Yeheshua ,
is the same name in both salvation verses in the Old Testament.


HH: The name of Jesus had not be revealed in the Old Testament era in
connection with the person we know as Jesus, so it was assuredly not the
name referred to in Psalm 54. In Hebrew a person's name represented his
character as well as being an identifying tag. But the God of Israel had
a name, Yahweh. But when the psalmist talks this way, he refers to all
that God's name represents. God identified himself as Yahweh, the God of
Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. Most English Bibles translate Yahweh as LORD,
but it was a name. He was the God who was so evident in the lives of
Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. One thing God's name seems to have
represented was his presence to aid his people. This is based in part on
the meaning of the word Yahweh, which is something like "He is," or "He
will be." and in part in the context in which God revealed it to Moses.
God also spoke of himself as named "I am" or "I will be," apparently
implying in part that he would be there for his people:

Ex 3:11 And Moses said to God, Who am I to go to Pharaoh and take the
children of Israel out of Egypt? 12 And he said, Truly I will be with
you; and this will be the sign to you that I have sent you: when you
have taken the children of Israel out of Egypt, you will give worship to
God on this mountain.
13 And Moses said to God, When I come to the children of Israel and say
to them, The God of your fathers has sent me to you: and they say to me,
What is his name? what am I to say to them?
14 And God said to him, I AM WHAT I AM: and he said, Say to the children
of Israel, I AM has sent me to you. 15 And God went on to say to Moses,
Say to the children of Israel, The Lord, the God of your fathers, the
God of Abraham, of Isaac, and of Jacob, has sent me to you: this is my
name for ever, and this is my sign to all generations.

HH: The English could be obscuring a bit what is happening in the text.
The form of the verb is the same in several instances, and it is a form
that can also mean "I will be." It occurs in verse 12: "Truly, I will be
('ehyeh) with you. Then it occurs in verse 14: "I AM ('ehyeh) WHAT I AM
('ehyeh)." "Say to the children of Israel, I AM ('ehyeh) has sent me to
you." So one could translate "I WILL BE WHAT I WILL BE." But the Hebrew
could convey both the present or the future, and the translator felt
that the present has some implications that the future does not (God
does not only exist in the future).

Yours,
Harold
_______________________________________________
b-hebrew mailing list
b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
http://lists.ibiblio.org/mailman/listinfo/b-hebrew


--------------------------------------------------------------------------------



No virus found in this incoming message.
Checked by AVG - www.avg.com
Version: 8.5.409 / Virus Database: 270.13.88/2357 - Release Date: 09/09/09 17:50:00





Archive powered by MHonArc 2.6.24.

Top of Page