Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Vadim Cherny <him AT vadimcherny.org>]

That's the whole question. [b/v] are not allophones while [b/bh] might be.
If dagesh mens [b/v] difference, then Hebrew seems the only language 
which originally marked two different phonemes with one letter (in other 
languages the differentiation is of later origin).
Clearly, the Masoretes couldn't hear begedkefet as [b/bh] allophones, as 
we can see from un-dagesh consonants followed by a vowel, like 
yeshobhebh would be unpronounceable.
But neither did the authors of LXX and Hexapla hear [b/v] differentiation.

Vadim Cherny

Petr Tomasek wrote:
> What is clear, is that letters of bega"d kefa"t with and without dagesh
> do not present two different phonemes but rather are alophones
> (in masoretic biblical hebrew). The reason why they are at all marked
> is likely due to the fact, that hebrew was not the mother tongue of the
> masoretes, in which a phonemic distinction existed between b/v (or 
> whatever
> fonetic value they had).
>
> BTW, I'd recommend reading the following article:
>
>    Richard L. Goerwitz. "Is Tiberian Səgôl a Phoneme?" in: Proceedings 
> of the Twelfth International Congress of the International 
> Organization for Masoretic Studies. E. J. Revell (ed.). Cambrigde 
> University: Scholars Press 1995. pp. 155-170.
>
> P.T.
>
>