Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Bryant J. Williams III" <bjwvmw AT com-pair.net>]

Dear Rolf,

You did not answer the following question about which is perfective and which 
is
imperfective in the following texts:

2Chr 20:20 uve-tset-am `amad Yhoshafat vayyomer . . .
and while they were going out (to the wilderness) Yoshafat
took a stand and said . . .
2 Samuel 20:11 and 12 is a similar use of `amad, and Rolf will
be happy that these are a 'suffix-TAM' verb.
2 Ki 2:7 fifty prophets halxu vayya`amdu went and stood from
afar and the two of them `amdu stood/stopped at the Jordan.

How is "amad used as perfective and/or imperfective in the above texts in
context?

Rev. Bryant J. Williams III

----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Rolf Furuli" <furuli AT online.no>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Saturday, July 11, 2009 1:04 AM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] questions, reliable evidence, 'stand' and 'said'


> Dear Randall,
>
>
> For the record: I would like to emphasize that it is not my
> responsibility that this thread has stopped but yours. Participants
> in a discussion can define basic concepts differently, but a basic
> requirement for a meaningful discussion is that all parts give their
> definitions. You have not wanted to give your definition of the
> imperfective aspect and you have not wanted to answer my questions
> regarding your definition of the perfective aspect that I found to be
> unclear. Last year we had a similar situation on b-greek, when you
> also did not want to give your definition and the thread stopped. I
> do not understand your reasons, but it is of course your right to
> keep your definitions for yourself. If you change your mind, the
> thread can continue.
>
>
> Best regards,
>
> Rolf Furuli
> University of Oslo
>
>
>
>
>
>
> >Thank you for your response, and there are many interesting
> >texts worthy of discussion, and even some questionable
> >English translations, but it doesn't not deal with
> >the original question and spins away.
> >
> >>>So, both in
> >both the state expressed by the participle and by
> >the WAYYIQTOL R intersects E after the beginning
> >and before the end. So how can this WAYYIQTOL be
> >perfective?>>
> >
> >You, not me, claimed that this Gen 41 cannot be
> >perfective. So you need to explain how it is different from
> >perfective `amad examples that look similar.
> >See the original post in this thread.
> >
> >How can, e.g., 2Chr 20:20, 2 Samuel 20:11, and 12,
> >2 Ki 2:7 be perfective, but Gen 41 cannot be perfective?
> >
> >Then we can deal with vayyomer.
> >
> >braxot
> Randall
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