Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Yitzhak Sapir <yitzhaksapir AT gmail.com>]

On Tue, Jun 16, 2009 at 5:21 AM, K Randolph wrote:
> Aaaarrrgghhh!
[...]
> I also downloaded the sample lesson #2 from the COHELET website, and
> the Hebrew just does not feel right. It might be a mish mash of modern
> Israeli and Biblical Hebrew. Some of the phrases are just wrong, for
> example, XPC as a verb takes a B- prefix on its object noun or pronoun
> in Biblical Hebrew,

This regards the example on p. 20, numbered 2.22:

2.22 ky any xpc ksp
Compare Hosea 6:6: ky xsd xpcty
or Ps 40:7: zbx wmnxh l) xpct

 >or if the object is a verb, the verb is an infinitive.

I guess this regards the line on p. 17, numbered 2.17, but I don't
understand the criticism.  2.17 has an infinitive.

2.17 )ny xpc llkt )l tr$y$
Compare 1 Ki 9:1 )$r xpc l(&wt
Or Ps 40:9 l(&wt rcwnk )lhy xpcty

> And is there any example in Tanakh where (L means “must”?
> I can’t think of any.

This also regards 2.22, where the second line reads:
2.22 (lyk ltt ly ksp
Compare 2 Sam 18:11 (ly ltt lk (&rh ksp

Yitzhak Sapir