Biblical Hebrew Forum

[K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Yitzhak:

On Thu, May 28, 2009 at 8:11 AM, Yitzhak Sapir <yitzhaksapir AT gmail.com>wrote:

> On Thu, May 28, 2009 at 3:16 AM, K Randolph wrote:
> > Stephen:
> >
> > What we have is a person who wants to rewrite history to fit his personal
> > theories.
> >
> > The source of the English term is recognizable to a seafaring people. The
> > waves roll, are in motion—so when hills are viewed that appear similar to
> > waves, the similarity is noted. But the ancient Semites for the most part
> > were land people, would they have noted the similarity to waves? I doubt
> it.
>
> Karl, are you sure you're the person who talk about "rewriting history to
> fit
> someone's personal theories"?
>
> The NWS nations who were settled at the coast of the Levant utilized ships.
> The Phoenicians are recognized ship builders, and ships have been found
> off the coasts of Israel and Lebanon.


You are nitpicking, as this was already accounted for in saying “most”
instead of “all”. Look at my paragraph above. Or didn’t you read it?


>  In Jerusalem, we have bullae and
> seals with ships imprinted on them, dating to the 9th century BCE.  Even
> Solomon is said to have built a harbor and ships and to have participated
> in
> Phoenician trade (1 Ki 9:26, 10:22).
>

The question is not the tenth century BC and afterwards, but during the
Early Bronze Age when Abraham lived—was there the concept of “rolling hills”
in Semitic languages at that time? Especially since Genesis is written from
the viewpoint of landlubbers who never mentioned seafaring (other than the
ark)?

>
> Yitzhak Sapir


Karl W. Randolph.