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  • From: dwashbur AT nyx.net
  • To: B-Hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] The use of the Yiqtol in Isaiah 1:21
  • Date: Tue, 21 Apr 2009 17:29:56 -0700



On 22 Apr 2009 at 9:56, George Athas wrote:

> I'm with Rolf on this one: tense is not grammaticalised in Biblical Hebrew.
> Rather, tense has to be inferred from deictic markers elsewhere in the
> clause.
>
> The distinction I work with, and it does seem to work, is that Qatal
> represents 'definite action', and Yiqtol represents 'indefinite
> action'. The distinction between these is similar to that of nouns: a
> definite noun is specific and particular, while an indefinite noun is
> less so. Both a definite noun and an indefinite noun can refer to one
> person (e.g. 'the king' and 'a king'), but the definite is quite
> specific, while the indefinite is less so. Wayyiqtol looks at an
> action as though it were happening 'live'.

George,
I agree that tense is not grammaticalised in BH. I'm wondering how your
distinction
compares and contrasts with the "realis/irrealis" distinction between Qatal
and Yiqtol
suggested by Hatav and others (myself included)?

Thanks,
Dave Washburn




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