Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Joseph Justiss <jljustiss AT msn.com>]

Karl

 

Thank you for responding. If the context is refering to present realities 
wouldn't this necessitate translating the Yiqtol with a present tense though? 
The context does seem to be refering to the past. This and the evidence from 
the versions is very powerful to suggest a past reading. I was just wondering 
if there was any more grammatical evidence other than context to guide us in 
knowing when a Yiqtol may be refering to the past. Does X Yiqtol ever do 
this, or are past reference Yiqtols usually clause initial?Also, verse 26 in 
the immediate context seems to be predicting that one day after this the city 
will once again be called the city of righteousness and the faithful city. I 
just thought perhaps this X Yiqtol construct (a construction which very often 
has a "+ projection") might be doing the same thing, i.e. functioning as a 
little tiny insertion of a "predictive narrative" as Longacre likes to call 
it.

 

Thanks

Joe Justiss 

 
> Message: 2
> Date: Mon, 20 Apr 2009 11:05:28 -0500
> From: Joseph Justiss <jljustiss AT msn.com>
> Subject: [b-hebrew] The use of the Yiqtol in Isaiah 1:21
> To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
> Message-ID: <COL107-W210EF8D432D191C0D5310B2760 AT phx.gbl>
> Content-Type: text/plain; charset="Windows-1252"
> 
> 
> The Yiqtol in Isaiah 1:21 is handled by most English translations and the 
> major versions as some kind of past reference "Righteousness dwelt/used to 
> dwell in her" with the Targum using a paraphrastic construction "was done 
> in her" (a perfect form of "to be" with a Gt participle). Is it not 
> possible to read the verse as a prediction about what will ultimately 
> happen to the faithful city? I'm thinking something like "righteousness 
> will dwell in her, but for now murders" given the theological vision of 
> restoration in Isaiah as a whole? How do we know for sure this is a 
> "habitual past" use of Yiqtol and not just a forward looking use?
> 
> 
> 
> Joseph Justiss 
> 
> PhD Student 
> 
> Golden Gate Baptist Theological Seminary
> 
> _________________________________________________________________
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> ------------------------------
> 
> Message: 3
> Date: Mon, 20 Apr 2009 09:45:57 -0700
> From: K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] The use of the Yiqtol in Isaiah 1:21
> To: B-Hebrew <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
> Message-ID:
> <acd782170904200945y5d57f2bduf07177c840dc05e AT mail.gmail.com>
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> 
> Joseph:
> 
> Context.
> 
> The context indicates that the verse is talking about a present reality
> compared to a better (though not perfect) past. The immediate previous
> verses refered to an optative possibility, this and the following verses
> refer to a present reality.
> 
> Karl W. Randolph.
> San Francisco
> 
> On Mon, Apr 20, 2009 at 9:05 AM, Joseph Justiss <jljustiss AT msn.com> wrote:
> 
> >
> > The Yiqtol in Isaiah 1:21 is handled by most English translations and the
> > major versions as some kind of past reference "Righteousness dwelt/used to
> > dwell in her" with the Targum using a paraphrastic construction "was done 
> > in
> > her" (a perfect form of "to be" with a Gt participle). Is it not possible 
> > to
> > read the verse as a prediction about what will ultimately happen to the
> > faithful city? I'm thinking something like "righteousness will dwell in 
> > her,
> > but for now murders" given the theological vision of restoration in Isaiah
> > as a whole? How do we know for sure this is a "habitual past" use of 
> > Yiqtol
> > and not just a forward looking use?
> >
> >
> >
> > Joseph Justiss
> >
> > PhD Student
> >
> > Golden Gate Baptist Theological Seminary
> 
> 
> ------------------------------
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> End of b-hebrew Digest, Vol 76, Issue 18
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