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  • From: Vadim Cherny <him AT vadimcherny.org>
  • To: yodan AT yodanco.com, "b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org >> b-hebrew Hebrew" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] ancient transliterations of names
  • Date: Wed, 18 Mar 2009 22:51:40 +0200

IMO, all Hebrew vowel mark represent cantillation rather than speech. It is unthinkable that Babylonian and Tiberian scholars had different religious traditions as to the sacred sounds. Rather, they had slight differences in cantillation, just as one can sing an opera slightly differently. Indeed, we would expect the most variance in long [a] - [aw] transformation.

The difference of kamatz-gadol - katan in Naomo, IMO, is easily explainable: ayn was an heavy guttural for Sephardis, thus kamatz gadol.

I also imagine that all Hebrew vowels are traceable to one: http://vadimcherny.org/hebrew/protohewbrew_single_vowel.htm

Vadim Cherny

Yodan wrote:
Question:


Does anyone on this list know what was the LXX, Vulgate, or another ancient
transliteration of the name Nun-Ayin-Mem-Yud (the name of the mother-in-law
of Ruth)? Or can anyone point me to a source where the answer can be found?


The reason for the question:


According to the rules set by medieval Sephardi grammarians, the Kamatz of
Nun is Kamatz Gadol (because the syllable is open), hence Na`omi. However,
this Kamatz is a Kamatz Katan according to modern-era Biblical Hebrew
scholars (hence also in modern Hebrew). It is conceivable that the etymology
of this Kamatz is OH (if the name is "derived" from No`am), supporting the
transliteration No`omi. However, Tanakh translations show this name as
Naomi.

Because LXX, Vulgate, and other ancient translations preceded medieval
Sephardi grammarians, perhaps they provide a clue to how this name was
pronounced by those who used different vowel-sounds (AH and OH) for the two
different types of Kamatz.


More background related to the question:


If the transliteration was based on a Hebrew pronunciation that did not
differentiate between the two Kamatz vowel sounds (as was the case with the
Tiberians), the transliterations may not be informative. However, because
even during the era of the Tiberian Masoretes there were Hebrew
pronunciations (e.g. Babylonian Jews and others who lived in the Land of
Israel) who did differentiate between the two sounds (which the Tiberian
calls by a single name Kamatz), it's possible (likely?) that early Tanakh
translations (which preceded the Tiberian Masoretes by centuries) were done
by people who used different vowel sounds for what ended up as the same
vowel sound in the Tiberian pronunciation.

Thanks in advance.


Rivka Sherman-Gold, Ph.D.


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Rivka AT Yodanco.com

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