Biblical Hebrew Forum

[K Randolph <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

John:

I haven’t tried to answer your question, because you seem to have two
different ones wrapped up in one set of words.

When you asked:

“So my question is what it is: Does the addition of a dagesh(es) into the
"base" of the word change the meaning the of "base" of the word?”

Do you mean root? If so, then the answer is “No”. The dagesh in and of
itself never changes the meaning.

But when you accepted the answer:
“> qinnim "nests/compartments" Gen 6:14
“> qinim "lamentations" Ezekiel 2:10
“>
“gn6:14,6 <QIN.IYM> - Common Noun, Masculine Plural of <Q"N>
“ek2:10,10 <QINIYM> - Common Noun, Feminine Plural of <QIYNFH>
“
“This is EXACTLY what I am asking for!!!!!! Everything is identical
graphically except for a variation in the dagesh marks - and they have two
different meanings. in fact they are even two different lemmas!
“THANK YOU!!!!
“THANK YOU!!!!
“THANK YOU!!!!”

Here we are dealing with two completely different roots which happen to have
similar derivative forms (exactly the same in an unpointed text) where the
dagesh does not change the meaning of the words in question, rather it is
merely a pointer that there are different roots involved. So how does this
answer your question? If the dagesh in one of these examples did not change
any meaning, how does it answer your question above?

How does this example answer your question? I don’t understand. Do you
really understand yourself what you are asking? How is this different from
any other examples where words from different roots have similar to the same
spellings (homographs) in derivative forms?

Karl W. Randolph.