Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Yitzhak Sapir <yitzhaksapir AT gmail.com>]

On Wed, Feb 25, 2009 at 7:33 PM, Brak wrote:
> David Kummerow wrote:
>> Hi John,
>>
>> Not sure what you mean by "base morpheme".
>>
> By "base morpheme" I mean the main part of the word - not the prefix(es)
> or suffix(es).
> This should have been clear by my use of the example  below of:
>
> <H:A/$OM"R> vs <HA/$.OM"R>:
> <$OM"R> = Qal Participle Masculine Singular
> <$.OM"R> = Qal Participle Masculine Singular
>
> So lets just focus on the dagesh on the base.
> So in the above example the dagesh has no effect on the meaning of the base.
> Its Qal Participle Masculine Singular with or without the dagesh.
>
> Are there any examples where the dagesh (and it alone) will change the
> meaning?

I don't understand.  First you insist on complete orthographical similarity.
Then, you go ahead and remove prefixes as if they don't matter at all.
You refuse to further elaborate on your question saying you won't validate
your question, but don't understand why we don't understand the question.
Maybe you should look to the queen or her king to give you the answer.
Or is that not good enough?

Yitzhak Sapir