Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Brak <Brak AT neo.rr.com>]

I understand the use of the word "bless" here as follows:
Satan is being sarcastic with God, as if he's saying "oh yeah....... Job 
will bless you... snicker ha ha."
With Job's wife it expresses her anger and frustration, as if she is 
saying "go to h-ll you self-righteous b-st-rd!"

At least thats what makes sense to me.

As a note: I don't know if use of such words are permitted on the forum, 
hence me dashing out the vowels.

B"H
John Steven

"He who makes a mistake is still our friend; he who adds to or shortens 
a melody is still our friend; but he who violates a rhythm unawares can 
no longer be our friend."
-Ishaq Ibn Ibrahim 767-850 CE.

"If you don't behave as you believe, you will end by believing as you 
behave."
-Archbishop Fulton J. Sheen

"The difference between the intelligent man and the simpleton is not the 
correctness of their decisions, but rather the cunning sinner can more 
skillfully defend and justify his iniquity."
- Rabbi Tovia Singer


John Estell wrote:
> Young's Literal Translation renders Job 1:11  as such: The work of his hands 
> Thou hast blessed, and his substance hath spread in the land, and yet, put 
> forth, I pray Thee, Thy hand, and strike against anything that he hath -- if 
> not: to Thy face he doth bless Thee!'
>
> I understand that most translations translated barak as "curse" in this verse, as well 
> as in Job 1:5, 2:5, and 2:9.  However, does the usual sense of "to bless" make sense in 
> this context?
>
> Might Satan be asking  God a question that if He put forth His hand against 
> Job
> will Job bless God to His face? Or in 2:5, might Satan have been telling God 
> to put forth His hand and touch all Job has in order to see if he will still 
> bless God?
>
> Thanks,
>
> John
>
>
>       
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