Biblical Hebrew Forum

["K Randolph" <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Michael:

Not necessarily.

Just because a word almost always has a theological meaning (Torah =
"Law written by Moses" is a theological meaning) does not mean that it
always has that meaning, even when written by the same author. Hence,
this could be a new "Torah", an implication given also by the
immediate context.

The non-theological meaning is "instruction" which also fits the context.

Karl W. Randolph.

On 9/21/07, Deborah Millier <deborahmillier AT yahoo.com> wrote:
> Dear List Members,
>
> In all other occurrences of TORATI ("my torah") in
> Jeremiah (not to mention most places elsewhere in the
> Hebrew Bible), the phrase demonstrably refers to the
> Mosaic Torah with all its unique commandments and
> statutes (Jer 6:19; 9:13; 16:11; 26:4; 44:10). So,
> from an exegetical (not theological) standpoint, would
> it be safe to assume that TORATI also means the Mosaic
> Torah in the new covenant prophecy of Jer 31:33?
>
> If not, could you please explain your reasoning? Your
> insights are greatly appreciated.
>
> Shalom from Manila, Philippines,
> --Michael Millier
>
> "Only he who cries out for the Jews may sing Gregorian chants."
>                                         -- Dietrich Bonhoeffer