Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Vadim Cherny" <vadimcherny AT mail.ru>]

Right. That's why I wrote of the closest "logically acceptable" noun. In 
Is3:8, the closest noun is also obviously unacceptable.

What makes "my people" an adjective? Why can't lamo relate to adjective, 
anyway?

Vadim Cherny


> This is very definitely not the case in Genesis 9:26–27, where
> grammatically the closest noun is the object, not the subject.
>
> In Isaiah 53:8 the noun "my people" is used grammatically as an
> adjective, not used as a noun, hence it is not the subject of LMW. The
> next closest noun is "rebellion", prefixed with a M- in this context
> meaning "because of", so it cannot be the subject of LMW.
> Grammatically speaking, the subject of LMW is the "slave" who is
> contextually distinct from "my people".
>
> Karl W. Randolph.
>
> On 7/5/07, Vadim Cherny <vadimcherny AT mail.ru> wrote:
> > lamo, as other prepositions, normally refers to the closest logically
> > acceptable noun. Unless there is an overwhelming reason to relate
> > preposition to a remote noun, the closest noun is your best bet.
> > In Isaiah 53:8, lamo likely refers to ami, my people. Strictly speaking,
> > lamo could also relate to "him," the suffering servant; transposition is
> > possible. Preference is only a matter of interpretation.
> >
> > Vadim Cherny
> > http://vadimcherny.org/judaism/isaiah53.htm