Biblical Hebrew Forum

["K Randolph" <kwrandolph AT gmail.com>]

Dear Travis:

You are right, as far as that goes. You are thinking of examples such
as Judges 1 where it is grammatically a singular use, where the verb
and any adjectives are also singular. The question as I understand it,
does the contraction LMW always refer to a plural subject?

What I object to here is that the nouns and verbs are singular, yet
Steve insists that the subjects are plural, which does not make
grammatical sense. Nor does it make contextual sense in that only the
individuals are named. Therefore to claim that it must be plural
contradicts the grammatical context which is singular, which is what I
say is adding to the text.

Karl W. Randolph.

On 7/4/07, trepp AT telus.net <trepp AT telus.net> wrote:
> In all fairness, though, to Steve Miller, whom you said is adding to the text,
> is there not a rather common way in which Scripture refers to peoples in the
> singular names of their fathers?
>
> Sincerely,
> Travis Jackson