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Subject: Biblical Hebrew Forum
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- From: Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu>
- To: Jason Hare <jaihare AT gmail.com>
- Cc: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
- Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Joshua 2:1 and 17, Questions
- Date: Thu, 31 May 2007 21:50:38 -0400
Jason,
I admit that HAZEH is irregular and we would have expected HAZO instead. So what? It is contextually crystal clear what it is all about. I merely used this opportunity, as I routinely do, to express my adamant opinion that reference to a "binyan" is often devoid of sense. To say that HILBI$ is is 'hiphil' is like saying that a circle is round. The structure of HILBI$ is the root LB$ augmented by the two personal pronouns HI, HI, one for the initiator of the act LB$ and the other for the its beneficiary. This makes sense. How obvious everything becomes when you see HI$BA(TANU as being the composition (can it be otherwise?) HI-$BA(-AT-ANU.
Isaac Fried, Boston University
On May 31, 2007, at 10:14 AM, Jason Hare wrote:
Isaac,
(1) I do not think it "redundant" to mention the binyan of a specific
form. However, no one mentioned it at all. The question was entirely
other.
(2) The question was about the form, which is MASCULINE!
with להשביע? Should it not employ a lamed-prefix for the indirectAdditionally... Is it normal to use a direct object like this
object? I don't know what's standard in BH.
Regards,
Jason
On 5/31/07, Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu> wrote:
B-Hebrew LISTIM,_______________________________________________
HI$BA(TANU consists of the root SB(, 'swear', and the three attached
personal pronouns HI, AT, ANU for the contextually obvious actors.
Every Hebrew word is but a root plus personal pronouns. Using the
term 'hiphil' is a redundancy.
Isaac Fried, Boston University
On May 30, 2007, at 1:04 PM, Jason Hare wrote:
Dear B-Hebrew,
Last night I read a couple of chapters of Joshua for leisure, and
there are a couple of things that I noticed that I wanted to ask
about:
(1) Although $BW(H /shevu'ah/ [שבועה] is feminine, it is
modified with
the masculine ZH /zeh/ [זה] in 2:17:
נְקִיִּם אֲנַחְנוּ מִשְּׁבֻעָתֵךְ
הַזֶּה אֲשֶׁר הִשְׁבַּעְתָּנוּ
NQYM )NXNW M$B(TK HZH )$R H$B(TNW
Come to think of it, why is H$B(TNW masculine, when it is talking
about Rahab?
(2) Is there any reason why the NIV footnote says that the word ZWNH
/zonah/ [זונה] can be translated as "innkeeper"?
Thanks,
Jason
Joplin, MO > Ra'anana (Israel)
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-
[b-hebrew] Joshua 2:1 and 17, Questions,
Jason Hare, 05/30/2007
- Re: [b-hebrew] Joshua 2:1 and 17, Questions, Yigal Levin, 05/31/2007
-
Message not available
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Joshua 2:1 and 17, Questions,
Jason Hare, 05/31/2007
- Re: [b-hebrew] Joshua 2:1 and 17, Questions, Isaac Fried, 05/31/2007
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Joshua 2:1 and 17, Questions,
Jason Hare, 05/31/2007
-
Re: [b-hebrew] Joshua 2:1 and 17, Questions,
K Randolph, 05/31/2007
- Re: [b-hebrew] Joshua 2:1 and 17, Questions, Harold Holmyard, 05/31/2007
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