Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu>]

Pere,

It is, of course, 'wonder' not 'wander'.

Isaac Fried, Boston University

On Apr 28, 2007, at 12:22 AM, <pporta AT oham.net> <pporta AT oham.net> wrote:

> > I was wondering of the word )UM.IYM was related to the word "mother".
> >
> > Now you state that L:)OM and I would assume you would also include  
> > the
> > words in question )UM.IYM  and  L:)UM.IYM is most likely not  
> > related to
> > )UM.IYM and )UM.FH
> > I was wondering why you think that. To my limited knowledge it would
> > appear that )UM.IYM was the basis for L:)UM.IYM and that in fact
> > L:)UM.IYM should be morphed as L:/)UM.IYM to mean "to people" or "for
> > people"? Or would it be some grammar thing in which the L: is doing
> > something to the word instead of adding "to"?
>
> ______________
>
> Dear BH listers, and mainly John Steven,
>
> Related to the issue you're dealing with some days ago, I found an
> interesting case similar to yours.
>
> These are two identical words that come from different bases and,  
> unlike
> your case, mean opposite or, better, nearly opposite things:
>
> 1. In Psalm 39:14 -------- HF$A( ------- look away!  ------- base:  
> $F(FH,
> gaze (Gen 4:5)
> 2. In Isa 6:10 ------------- HF$A(  ------- blind! --------------  
> base:
> $F(A(, be blind (not in the Bible)
>
> Perhaps this can help casting some light on your question.
>
> Pere Porta
>
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