Biblical Hebrew Forum

[<pporta AT oham.net>]

> I was wondering of the word )UM.IYM was related to the word "mother".
>
> Now you state that L:)OM and I would assume you would also include the
> words in question )UM.IYM  and  L:)UM.IYM is most likely not related to
> )UM.IYM and )UM.FH
> I was wondering why you think that. To my limited knowledge it would
> appear that )UM.IYM was the basis for L:)UM.IYM and that in fact
> L:)UM.IYM should be morphed as L:/)UM.IYM to mean "to people" or "for
> people"? Or would it be some grammar thing in which the L: is doing
> something to the word instead of adding "to"?

______________

Dear BH listers, and mainly John Steven,

Related to the issue you're dealing with some days ago, I found an 
interesting case similar to yours.

These are two identical words that come from different bases and, unlike 
your case, mean opposite or, better, nearly opposite things:

1. In Psalm 39:14 -------- HF$A( ------- look away!  ------- base: $F(FH, 
gaze (Gen 4:5)
2. In Isa 6:10 ------------- HF$A(  ------- blind! -------------- base: 
$F(A(, be blind (not in the Bible)

Perhaps this can help casting some light on your question.

Pere Porta