Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu>]

All,

I am sorry, but as I pasted my post of March 6, 2007 7:35:10 AM EST  
onto Mail, the line endings got mixed-up and my name was left out.

Isaac Fried, Boston University
On Mar 6, 2007, at 7:35 AM, Isaac Fried wrote:

> Lisbeth,
>
> You are right in saying that HARAH is a predicate adjective. I only
> wonder
> if it would not be simpler and clearer to use plain English and say  
> that
> HARAH is a state the ALMAH is presently in. You are further right in
> saying
> that ha'alma hehara = the pregnant young woman. The prefixed HE (or
> HA) in
> HE-HARAH is the personal pronoun HI, English 'she', and it makes HE-
> HARAH a
> certainty. One does not add the definite article preposition and say
> HE-HARAH =
> she-pregnant, unless there is a consensus on the woman's pregnancy.
> But the
> prophet is not saying this; he is not saying HINEH HA-ALMA HA-HARAH,
> only
> HINEH HA-ALMA HARAH. Why not? Because, in my humble opinion, the
> ALMAH was
> not yet pregnant at the time Isaiah uttered these words. Otherwise,
> what is
> the significance of all this being an OT, 'a sign'? The prophet is  
> using
> the present state HARAH to impart his conviction on the certainty and
> imminence (not
> immanence) of the pregnancy destined to presently happen, as further
> indicated by HINEH.
>
> Surely what we now surmise was crystal clear (or possibly merely
> gossip) to the inhabitants of Jerusalem at the time of good king AXAZ.
>
> On Mar 3, 2007, at 11:22 PM, Lisbeth S. Fried wrote:
>
> > LF: Harold is correct, it's an adjective, in this case a predicate
> > adjective.
> > When the noun has an article the adjective may or may not also have
> > the
> > article, and the sense changes accordingly.
> > ha'alma hara == the young woman is pregnant.
> > ha'alma hehara == the pregnant young woman.
> >
> > Best,
> > Liz Fried
> >
> >
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