Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Steve Miller" <smille10 AT sbcglobal.net>]

Yours in Christ,
-Steve Miller
Now no discipline at the present time seems to be a matter of joy, but of
grief; but afterward it yields the peaceable fruit of righteousness to those
who have been exercised by it.  (Hebrews 12:11)
 

> From: Lisbeth S. Fried Sent: Saturday, March 03, 2007 11:22 PM
> Dear Jack,
> > > I have a question or two about Isaiah 7:14.  Let me say at the outset
> that
> > > I do not care
> > whether the feminine singular noun 'LMH means virgin or young woman.
> After
> > the atnach
> > at 'WT up to the zeqef qatan at BN there are five words - HNH H'LMH HRM
> >
> > HH: You mean HRH, not HRM.
> >
> > >  VYLDT BN.  There is a demonstrative particle (DP), a feminine
> singular
> > > noun (FSN1), a
> > second feminine singular noun (FSN 2),
> >
> > HH: This (FSN 2) is not a noun but an adjective.
> 
> LF: Harold is correct, it's an adjective, in this case a predicate
> adjective.
> When the noun has an article the adjective may or may not also have the
> article, and the sense changes accordingly.
> ha'alma hara == the young woman is pregnant.
> ha'alma hehara == the pregnant young woman.
> >
> > > My last question is about the definite article attached to FSN1.  Is
> there
> > > some significance
> > to this noun being only the noun to have a definite article?
> > >
> > HH: Yes, it is the subject.
> LF: I.e., "the woman I'm pointing to".
> >
 [Steve Miller] Thank you for this informative question and answers.

What would be the difference in sense if the last noun, ben, had a definite
article: 
 - What if both almah and ben had definite articles? 
 - What if almah did not have a def article, but ben did?

Thanks,
-Steve Miller
Detroit
www.voiceinwilderness.info