Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Isaac Fried <if AT math.bu.edu>]

Lisbeth,

You are right in saying that HARAH is a predicate adjective. I only  
wonder
if it would not be simpler and clearer to use plain English and say that
HARAH is a state the ALMAH is presently in. You are further right in  
saying
that ha'alma hehara = the pregnant young woman. The prefixed HE (or  
HA) in
HE-HARAH is the personal pronoun HI, English 'she', and it makes HE- 
HARAH a
certainty. One does not add the definite article preposition and say  
HE-HARAH =
she-pregnant, unless there is a consensus on the woman's pregnancy.   
But the
prophet is not saying this; he is not saying HINEH HA-ALMA HA-HARAH,  
only
HINEH HA-ALMA HARAH. Why not? Because, in my humble opinion, the  
ALMAH was
not yet pregnant at the time Isaiah uttered these words. Otherwise,  
what is
the significance of all this being an OT, 'a sign'? The prophet is using
the present state HARAH to impart his conviction on the certainty and  
imminence (not
immanence) of the pregnancy destined to presently happen, as further
indicated by HINEH.

Surely what we now surmise was crystal clear (or possibly merely
gossip) to the inhabitants of Jerusalem at the time of good king AXAZ.

On Mar 3, 2007, at 11:22 PM, Lisbeth S. Fried wrote:

> LF: Harold is correct, it's an adjective, in this case a predicate  
> adjective.
> When the noun has an article the adjective may or may not also have  
> the
> article, and the sense changes accordingly.
> ha'alma hara == the young woman is pregnant.
> ha'alma hehara == the pregnant young woman.
>
> Best,
> Liz Fried
>
>
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