Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter Kirk <peter AT qaya.org>]

On 04/10/2006 23:56, Chris and Nel wrote:
> Hallo,
>
> YeLiDTiCHa (Psalm 2:7)
>
> This is not a stative verb by definition, yet it behaves like one in
> conjugation with suffixes, its hireq under the second root letter shortened
> from sere, a middle E or O in the qal being intransitive by nature..
> (according to both Davies and Samuel Tragelles quoting on gesenius, who says
> that there is no need for this). Why was this verb then so pronounced, so 
> pointed by the masoretes instead of say like the verb YeDaTiCHa (I know 
> you)? I see no reason
> for the logic in the deviation from the expected pronounciation.
>
>   
This looks an interesting case. Numbers 11:12 is similar, but the other 
3 examples of YLD qal perfect first person singular have the expected A 
vowel. What is odd about Psalm 2:7 and Numbers 11:12 is that the subject 
is male. Normally when the subject is a father rather than a mother YLD 
is used in the hiphil, which would the I vowel in the second syllable, 
but an O vowel in the first syllable. I wonder if this odd form is some 
kind of cross between qal and hiphil, introduced perhaps to avoid the 
strange idea of a male mother?

--
Peter Kirk
E-mail:  peter AT qaya.org
Blog:    http://speakertruth.blogspot.com/
Website: http://www.qaya.org/