Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter Kirk <peter AT qaya.org>]

On 23/09/2006 19:39, Chris and Nel wrote:
> Gesenius makes some interesting observations about the purpose of a noun 
> being in the feminine:  "Indication of the gender of the noun" page 411 
> (1898 edition).
>
> This got me thinking about a few words that had no apparent reason for being 
> in the feminine.  One such word was the obvious -- Torah.  And so I wonder 
> whether there would be agreement to the following 'idea' (based on 
> Gesenius's reasoning) that while this concept was masterful, strong, 
> dominant and hence a masculine ideal; it is rather by absolute contrast a 
> productive, sustaining, nourishing concept! and hence feminine.  (All this 
> assuming that Torah is understood along the lines that it means nore 
> teaching and guiding and instruction rather than the negative concept of 
> 'Law' as assumed in some circles)
>
> What are your thoughts on this?
>
>   
This is not how language works. In any language with grammatical gender, 
the gender of many nouns is entirely arbitrary and no significance can 
be derived from it at all.

--
Peter Kirk
E-mail:  peter AT qaya.org
Blog:    http://speakertruth.blogspot.com/
Website: http://www.qaya.org/