Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Chris and Nel" <wattswestmaas AT eircom.net>]

Gesenius makes some interesting observations about the purpose of a noun 
being in the feminine:  "Indication of the gender of the noun" page 411 
(1898 edition).

This got me thinking about a few words that had no apparent reason for being 
in the feminine.  One such word was the obvious -- Torah.  And so I wonder 
whether there would be agreement to the following 'idea' (based on 
Gesenius's reasoning) that while this concept was masterful, strong, 
dominant and hence a masculine ideal; it is rather by absolute contrast a 
productive, sustaining, nourishing concept! and hence feminine.  (All this 
assuming that Torah is understood along the lines that it means nore 
teaching and guiding and instruction rather than the negative concept of 
'Law' as assumed in some circles)

What are your thoughts on this?

Chris Watts