Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Rolf Furuli" <furuli AT online.no>]

Dear Kevin,

It is true that the Greek word AIWN is used to translate the Hebrew word 
(LM. However, in the last centuries of B.C.E. the lexical meaning of (LM 
evolved and changed both in Hebrew and Aramaic. The Greek AIWN is closer to 
this later evolution than to the meaning of the word in the Tanakh. 
Therefore, the NWT renders AIWN differently from (LM. In Rev 20:10 the NWT 
renders AIWNOS TWN AIWNWN as "forever and ever". Again we find a non-biased 
rendering, so your suspicion of bias in connection with (LM and AIWN is 
unfounded.

Best regards,

Rolf Furuli
University of Oslo


----- Original Message ----- 
From: "Kevin P. Edgecomb" <kevin AT bombaxo.com>
To: <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Sunday, February 05, 2006 8:41 PM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Daniel 12:2


> Solomon Landers wrote:
> When translators who believe God is eternal, as the NWT translators did,
> translate a verse to say what could be interpreted as otherwise, I fail to
> see
> any evidence of bias, theological or otherwise.
>
> KPE:
> It's not necessarily the case that every instance of a peculiar rendering
> actually has its source there or in any sort of conflation of use.  My
> suspicion, which I hesitate to call a memory, is that the "indefinitely
> lasting" translation of (LM is related to theological opinions regarding 
> the
> non-eternity of hell and the language used to describe it in Rev 20.10 and
> other places in the NT, where AION- is thereafter mapped to (LM in the OT.
> I only vaguely remember this reasoning being given to me over twenty years
> ago, so it may not be correct.  It certainly, however, clarifies the 
> oddity
> of the passage in question if it was indeed the motivation.
>
> Regards,
> Kevin P. Edgecomb
> Berkeley, California
>
>
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