Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>]

Kelton:

Thanks for the reference. I have no idea who Bill T. Arnold 
& John H. Choi are, so I'll go back and look directly at the 
text.

The 2 Kings 18:34 (and its parallel passage in Isaiah 
36:19) have NCL consistently in the Hiphil in the verses 
both preceding and following the verse in question. 
Further, in these verses, the middle yod for the Hiphil is 
present. Therefore, the hey after the KY in these verses is 
a sign of the Hiphil, not that of the interrogative prefix. The 
KY doesn't introduce an interrogative in these verses, for 
it is already under the interrogative that opens the verse.

Every time that I know of where the KY introduces an 
interrogative, the hey prefix precedes the KY, e.g. Genesis 
27:36 "and he said, Is not his name called Crooked and 
he has dealt crookedly with me these two times? ..." or 
2 Samuel 9:1 "and David said, Is there anyone still 
remaining from Saul's house ..." The only possible 
exception that I know of is this verse in Deuteronomy, 
where its context indicates that it should be a verb 
(Hiphil?) not a noun.

Are there any other examples where an interrogative hey 
follows a KY in Tanakh?

Karl W. Randolph.

----- Original Message -----
From: kgraham0938 AT comcast.net
> 
> @Karl:
> 
> Let me give you a quote then:  This is from "A Guide to Biblical 
> Hebrew Syntax" by Bill T.Arnold & John H.Choi p 155.
> 
> "Occansionally, KIY will function to introduce an interrogative 
> clause: KIY HADAM `EC HA&ADEM, Are the trees of the field as human 
> beings?" (Duet 20:19) KIY-HICYLW 'ET &M:RON MIYYADIY, have they 
> delivered Samaria from my hand (2 Kings 18:34).
> 
> So I think the argument here is that KIY sometimes introduces 
> interrogatives.
> 
> --
> Kelton Graham
> KGRAHAM0938 AT comcast.net

-- 
___________________________________________________
Play 100s of games for FREE! http://games.mail.com/