Biblical Hebrew Forum

[kgraham0938 AT comcast.net]

@Ben & Karl:

I would argue that occasionally KIY does function to introduce an 
interrogative clause.  Another example besides this one that I can find is 2 
Kings 18:34

KIY-HICIYLW 'ET &M:RON MIYYADIY = have they delivered Samaria from my hand?

I think the same principle applies here in this passage here in Duet 20:19 
the KIY introduces the interrogative.

--
Kelton Graham 
KGRAHAM0938 AT comcast.net

-------------- Original message -------------- 

> On Tue 15 Nov 2005 (15:03:58), kwrandolph AT email.com wrote: 
> > Within the sentence structure, it looks as if H)DM should 
> > be a verb, but there is none listed in the dictionary that fits this 
> > context. If a verb, which one? Could it be from the 
> > same root as )YD ? 
> > 
> > LXX doesn't seem to make any sense here either. 
> > 
> > In the critical apparatus of Biblica Hebreica it was noted 
> > that some recognize this as interrogative prefix, however 
> > if so, that should be on the KY, not on )DM. 
> 
> KiY Ha'aDaM `eC Ha&&aReH LaBo' MiPPaNeYKa BaMMaCoWR 
> 
> Most of the modern translations make the last clause of verse 19 a 
> rhetorical question, taking the He of He'aDaM as He interrogativa 
> pointed with seghol. In this they are following the BHS footnote. 
> The history of this interpretation is given by Keil & Delitzsch /ad loc/ 
> (which see). 
> 
> H)DM cannot be the subject of the sentence, but from its position 
> it may be the object. 
> 
> The Vulgate has /quoniam lignum est et non homo nec potest bellantium 
> contra te augere numerum/. 
> 
> The NRSV has "Are trees in the field human beings that they should come 
> under siege from you?". 
> 
> The NIV has "Are the trees of the field people, that you should besiege 
> them?". 
> 
> The point seems to be that fruit trees should not be devastated in a 
> time of siege, so that afterwards the survivors may have something left 
> to eat. 
> 
> Shalom 
> Ben 
> -- 
> Revd Ben Crick, BA CF ZFC Hf 
> 
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>From Awohili AT aol.com  Wed Nov 16 07:05:21 2005
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Not so.  If you Google "olam indefinite time,"  as I did, you  will have a 
much different result.  None of the first references was to the  NWT or 
Jehovah's Witnesses, but to word studies done by others that equate  "olam" 
with an 
indefinite time.  One of such references goes back  to James Orr, M.A., D.D., 
general editor of the  "International  Standard Bible Encyclopedia," 
published 
in 1915.
 
Besides, I thought the objective academic issue was not who uses the term,  
but whether the term is an accurate representation of the Hebrew "olam."   
Once 
we go off subjectively into other matters and play the "sect" card, the  
discussion devolves to another plane.
 
Solomon Landers
. 
 
In a message dated 11/15/2005 6:39:26 A.M. Pacific Standard Time,  
peter AT qaya.org writes:

Do you have  any reason to change your mind? It seems to me that these 
translators did  indeed make up the expression, or perhaps they borrowed 
it from earlier  teaching of their sect.