Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Awohili AT aol.com]

That may be so, Harold, for an English text written by an English  speaker.  
But the English Bible is a translation of a Hebrew text, so we  also have to 
consider what "olam" meant to the Hebrew writers of the text.  
 
Thus, it matters whether the Hebrew writers had in mind "eternity" as  
Westernized English speakers understand it, or something else.  And if in  
the Bible 
it signifies "eternity" some times, did its Hebrew writers always  use the 
term "olam" of things "eternal"?  And if not, what did "olam" mean  in those 
instances?
 
"I went down to the bottoms of the mountains; the earth with her bars was  
about me for ever [l'olam]:  yet hast thou brought up my life from  
corruption, 
O LORD my God." -- Jonah 2:6 KJV
 
In this occurrence, "forever" lasted for only three days.
 
Solomon Landers
 
In a message dated 11/14/2005 7:36:58 A.M. Pacific Standard Time,  
hholmyard AT ont.com writes:

That may be  so, but when a reader comes to a text, 
he does not come to the concept of  "eternity." He only comes to the 
text. If he reads that such-and-such will  last for "an indefinite 
time," that does not spark in the mind the concept  of "eternity." The 
phrase is too vague and could mean five minutes. This  is why 
translation cannot use a single term for many words, since words  have 
more than one signification.

Yours,
Harold  Holmyard