Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter Kirk <peterkirk AT qaya.org>]

On 19/09/2005 09:04, Vadim Cherny wrote:

> > > Present tense
> > > Deuteronomy 1:44 "they pursued you, as the bees do"
> > >      
>
> My reading was "as the bees would do".
>
> Recall Rolf's example of 1Kings21:6: `Because I spoke (YIQTOL) to Nabot the
> Jezreelite and said (WAYYIQTOL) to him...' Literally, “As I would speak to
> Nabot.”
> In both cases, we have seemingly idiomatic form ci-yiqtol. Reading "as smbd
> would do" suits both cases.
> You argued that "as smbd would do" is not future tense in English, though I
> am not sure what else is it. ...

It is habitual past, corresponding to one use of the Russian 
imperfective past, as in the form преследовали which you quoted for the 
conventional Russian translation.

> ... What is important for the tense hypothesis,
> however, is that stand-alone "would do" is English future tense. ...
>  

Well, since this last part is NOT TRUE, I assume you will now withdraw 
your "tense hypothesis".

> ...
>
> Would you agree that Deut1:44 and 1Kings21:6 do not contradict the
> hypothesis of Hebrew using tenses?
>  

They do contradict your hypothesis.


--
Peter Kirk
peter AT qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/



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