Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter Kirk <peterkirk AT qaya.org>]

On 05/07/2005 22:16, Karl Randolph wrote:

> ...
>
> But my question remains, is there any evidence that _spoken_ Akkadian and 
> Aramaic were different languages?
>
>  
Karl, it is possible that the *spoken* language of Babylonia before the 
Persian conquest was Aramaic rather than the Akkadian that was used in 
cuneiform tablets. But that does not make it Akkadian rather than 
Aramaic. Akkadian and Aramaic are very different languages, admittedly 
both Semitic but from different main branches of this family. Your 
question is a bit like asking if the old Norse spoken in modern England 
is different from English. Well, the language spoken in England is the 
same as English, but it is not old Norse!

--
Peter Kirk
peter AT qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/



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