Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Dave Washburn <dwashbur AT nyx.net>]

On Monday 04 April 2005 13:19, Yigal Levin wrote:
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>
>
> > And there are plenty of people who claim that the text, analysing it
>
> linguistically, indicates while a particular woman was meant, that there
> was no indication that it had to be a woman who was alive at the time
> Isaiah said it.
>
> If so, Karl, what significance would it have had to Ahaz?
>
> > In this I'm reminded of the prophesy concerning Josiah in 1 Kings 13:2.
> >From the immediate text, one would conclude that this Josiah was already
>
> born, but it wasn't until centuries later that that prophesy was fulfilled.
>
>
> Karl,
> The difference is that 1 Kings 13 was written either during the time of
> Josiah or later, and so the author could put a "prophecy" about Josiah in
> the anonymous "man of God"s mouth. Isaiah 7 was NOT written by Matthew.

Um, this is an assumption based on certain philosophical presuppositions, not 
a demonstrable fact.  The truth is, the text says the man predicted Josiah's 
rise several hundred years before it happened.  If that gives some people a 
problem, so be it, but writing it off with assumptions not demonstrated in 
the text is not a good way to deal with it.

-- 
Dave Washburn
http://www.nyx.net/~dwashbur
"No good.  Hit on head."   -Gronk