Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>]

C Meadows:

The English use of the participle is different than the Hebrew. While the 
translation that you mention is an acceptable one (providing the rest of the 
verse is carefully translated), in Hebrew the participle often refers back to 
the actor, hence many nouns have the same form as participles. In Hebrew, a 
participle would not fit.

Karl W. Randolph.

----- Original Message -----
From: cmeadows3 AT verizon.net

> 
> Merry Christmas all!
> 
> I have a question about the translation of the so-called 
> "pluperfect".  In Genesis 2:19 some bible versions translate the 
> wayyiqtol "wayyatser" as "had formed", giving it an epexegetical 
> sense instead of translating it as a narrative wayyiqtol.  I know 
> opinions vary on this particular verse.  My question is this:
> 
> Given that the English "God had formed" is used in the NIV, would 
> it be possible to use "having formed"?  This seems to change things 
> a bit, rendering a wayyiqtol (in apparent narrative) with an 
> English participle (in a dependent clause).  Would this be an 
> acceptable translation?  Wouldn't the author likely have used a 
> participle if this was intended originally?  Thanx.
> 
> C Meadows
> Marshall University
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