Biblical Hebrew Forum

[<cmeadows3 AT verizon.net>]

Merry Christmas all!

I have a question about the translation of the so-called "pluperfect".  In 
Genesis 2:19 some bible versions translate the wayyiqtol "wayyatser" as "had 
formed", giving it an epexegetical sense instead of translating it as a 
narrative wayyiqtol.  I know opinions vary on this particular verse.  My 
question is this:

Given that the English "God had formed" is used in the NIV, would it be 
possible to use "having formed"?  This seems to change things a bit, 
rendering a wayyiqtol (in apparent narrative) with an English participle (in 
a dependent clause).  Would this be an acceptable translation?  Wouldn't the 
author likely have used a participle if this was intended originally?  Thanx.

C Meadows
Marshall University
> 
> From: Bill Rea <bsr15 AT cantsl.it.canterbury.ac.nz>
> Date: 2004/12/21 Tue PM 04:43:50 CST
> To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Isaiah 53:8 lamo
> 
> Peter wrote:-
> 
> >The semantics of the ShLM root in Hebrew are very varied ...
> [snip]
> >Older translations tried this by calling this sacrifice a "peace
> >offering", but scholars have realised that this is a misunderstanding,
> >and so this translation has now been abandoned.
> 
> What do they consider it to be now?
> 
> Thanks.
> 
> Bill Rea, IT Services, Canterbury  University \_
> E-Mail bill.rea AT canterbury.ac.nz              </   New
> Phone 64-3-364-2331, Fax  64-3-364-2332      /)  Zealand
> Unix Systems Administrator                  (/'
> 
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