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  • From: <cmeadows3 AT verizon.net>
  • To: <bill.rea AT canterbury.ac.nz>, <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
  • Cc:
  • Subject: Re: Re: [b-hebrew] epexegetical imperfect
  • Date: Mon, 27 Dec 2004 9:57:07 -0600

Merry Christmas all!

I have a question about the translation of the so-called "pluperfect". In
Genesis 2:19 some bible versions translate the wayyiqtol "wayyatser" as "had
formed", giving it an epexegetical sense instead of translating it as a
narrative wayyiqtol. I know opinions vary on this particular verse. My
question is this:

Given that the English "God had formed" is used in the NIV, would it be
possible to use "having formed"? This seems to change things a bit,
rendering a wayyiqtol (in apparent narrative) with an English participle (in
a dependent clause). Would this be an acceptable translation? Wouldn't the
author likely have used a participle if this was intended originally? Thanx.

C Meadows
Marshall University
>
> From: Bill Rea <bsr15 AT cantsl.it.canterbury.ac.nz>
> Date: 2004/12/21 Tue PM 04:43:50 CST
> To: b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org
> Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Isaiah 53:8 lamo
>
> Peter wrote:-
>
> >The semantics of the ShLM root in Hebrew are very varied ...
> [snip]
> >Older translations tried this by calling this sacrifice a "peace
> >offering", but scholars have realised that this is a misunderstanding,
> >and so this translation has now been abandoned.
>
> What do they consider it to be now?
>
> Thanks.
>
> Bill Rea, IT Services, Canterbury University \_
> E-Mail bill.rea AT canterbury.ac.nz </ New
> Phone 64-3-364-2331, Fax 64-3-364-2332 /) Zealand
> Unix Systems Administrator (/'
>
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