Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>]

Chris:

Good question. But we can also put it on its head, what warrant is there for 
believing that there wasn't a linguistic continuity between the before-Babel 
speech and after-Babel language of a certain chosen line?

I submit that the answer to either is merely a matter of faith, as there is a 
dearth of information to answer one way or the other.

Karl W. Randolph.

----- Original Message -----
From: "Heard, Christopher" <Christopher.Heard AT pepperdine.edu>
>
> 
> Even if one _does_ accept the historicity of the stories in Genesis 1-11,
> precisely as they are told, what warrant is there for believing that there
> was _any_ linguistic continuity between the before-Babel speech and
> after-Babel languages?
> 
> Chris
> 
> --
> R. Christopher Heard
> Assistant Professor of Religion
> Armstrong Fellow in Religion
> Pepperdine University
> http://faculty.pepperdine.edu/cheard
> http://www.iTanakh.org
> http://www.semioticsandexegesis.info

-- 
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