Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter Kirk <peterkirk AT qaya.org>]

On 23/12/2004 16:29, Lisbeth S. Fried wrote:

> ...
> Third, Derida says that the written word preceded the spoken. I never 
> understood this tho, but maybe you do.
>  

Does he really say this? Even though all the evidence and every linguist 
says precisely the opposite? Does he really mean that all the tribal 
peoples who had no concept of writing until recent western contact, but 
who could all speak perfectly well, had once been literate but had 
entirely forgotten about writing?

Or is he speaking in some kind of riddle?

--
Peter Kirk
peter AT qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/



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