Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard AT ont.com>]

Dear Peter,

> Well, I don't agree that )$R can represent an antecedent at all, 
> singular or plural, in the sense you meant. At least, this is 
> unproven if the example put forward, Ezekiel 23:28, is anything like 
> the best example. And this is what the original discussion was 
> about. You can't argue ")$R can represent either a singular or 
> plural antecedent, therefore )$R can represent an antecedent". You 
> need to come up with examples where )$R unambiguously represents an 
> antecedent, i.e. where it fills a noun slot in the main clause. This 
> is necessary to refute my theory that )$R is simply a conjunction 
> i.e. it does not fill a noun slot in either main or subordinate 
> clause.

HH: I'm not following you. There is an entire section of examples in 
BDB under numbers 1-7. Conjunction comes with number 8. In the 
Dictionary of Biblical Hebrew, see the first meaning given, pages 
419-20: "as a pronoun introducing relative clause, which, that, 
who(m)." They have other sections with other similar functions. I am 
so familiar with this usage. It's in all the grammars I've ever seen 
(e.g., GKC #36; WOC #19.3) and is just basic Hebrew knowledge.

                                Yours,
                                Harold Holmyard