Biblical Hebrew Forum

["B. M. Rocine" <brocine AT twcny.rr.com>]

B-Haveray:

About a week ago I asked the following two questions, but received no
replies.
I can understand that the lack of replies may simply indicate a lack of
interest, time or energy.  That's fine.  I may mean the forum just doesn't
like one of your co-chairs, but that is unlikely since even I am not often
unanimously shunned by over five hundred people.  ;-)  It may also mean that
we
don't know the answers.  That would be interesting because if we don't know
the answers it might suggest
that in some respects, our BH grammars exist rather to preserve a
translation
tradition than to really explain BH.

I give the questions again, lettering the example texts, before I add
another question.

>
> One W and O'C "species" does indeed trouble me, the "attributive
genitive."
> In sect. 9.5.3b #1 we have
>

Example A.
> Ex 29:29
> ubigdey haqqodesh
> holy garments
>
> I think the understanding is incorrect.  I think the reference is to "the
> garments of the holiness."  In other words, the plain understanding is
*not*
> that the garments were holy or sacred.  Rather, the garments marked the
> holiness or the seperation of the priesthood.  Syntactically speaking,
> doesn't the fact that qodesh is a noun with the definite article attached
> fight against the idea that the genitive is attributive?  When both
> syntax/morphology *and* context give a plain reading, why do we get to
make
> this sort of leap to "genitive of attribution?"
>
> For another example, 9.5.3b, 21, "attributive genitive" w/ pronominal
suffix
> attached:
>

B.
> Ps 4:2
> 'elohey cidqi
> my righteous God
>
> It seems to me that "the God of my righteousness" and "my righteous God"
are
> significantly different readings.  "the God of my righteousness" seems
> readable and appropriate to me.  Again, both the syntax/morphology and
> context seem to be plain and readable.  *Why* should we interpret cedeq as
> an attribute and *why* do we apply the pronominal suffix to the whole
chain
> rather than to cedeq only?
>

C.
Ex 29:31
bemaqom qadosh
in a holy place

D.
Ps 7:10
'elohim cadyq
righteous God

 Notice that we may pair the four examples syntactically.  A and B are a
pair of construct chains <noun + noun>, but C and D are noun phrases <noun +
adjective>.  Are we to consider the syntax in C and D to be semantically
and/or functionally the same or distinct from the sytax in A and B?  Can you
explain the semantic/functional difference if there is one?  Thanks!

Shalom,
Bryan

B. M. Rocine
Living Word Church
6101 Court St. Rd.
Syracuse, NY 13206

ph: 315.437.6744
fx: 315.437.6766