Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Yigal Levin" <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>]

----- Original Message -----
From: "Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>
To: "b-hebrew" <b-hebrew AT lists.ibiblio.org>
Sent: Thursday, August 12, 2004 7:26 AM
Subject: Re: [b-hebrew] Singers


> Neither $RYM nor M$RRYM is found in Qohelet, making that question here
moot.
>
> At least neither show up in a search in Online Bible, unpointed text.
>

Try Qohelet 2:8, "(asiti li $arim ve$arot" - "I gat (excuse the King James
English) me men singers and women singers".

There's something to be said for a good old fashioned Mandelkern
concordance.






> The explanation of $RYM being found in post-Exilic literature is that that
literature is historical, referring to pre-exilic actions. Though the
post-exilic word would usually be used, what's to prevent a pre-exilic word
from sneaking in when describing pre-exilic events?
>
> Karl W. Randolph.

Could very well be. But can you rule out Me$orerim being used in pre-exilic
Hebrew, but just not in the texts that we have? Or post-exilic people also
using the "old" term in  daily usage. That's why I suggested that the
difference may be semantic, rather than chronological.

Yigal


>
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "Yigal Levin" <leviny1 AT mail.biu.ac.il>
>
> >
> > ----- Original Message -----
> > From: "Peter Kirk" <peterkirk AT qaya.org>
> > > >That's assuming that both the Deut. History AND Qohelet are
pre-exilic,
> > > >which most scholars would have reservations about.
> > > >
> > > >
> > >
> > > Their reservations might evaporate if they took this kind of
linguistic
> > > evidence seriously. There are real linguistic differences between the
> > > clearly post-exilic books and the rest of the HB, which imply at least
a
> > > different time of composition and suggest a period of instability
> > > allowing rapid language change. (On this hypothesis, Esther has to be
> > > explained as deliberate archaising.)
> > >
> > > But I won't push for a pre-exilic Qohelet.
> > >
> > > --
> > > Peter Kirk
> >
> > I agree entirely that there are differences between pre- and post-exilic
> > Hebrew, and I certainly don't subscribe to the "everything is late"
school.
> > However, in this particular case, the difference between $arim and
me$orerim
> > cannot be demonstrated to be only chronological: true that WE HAVE
me$orerim
> > only in post-exilic books, but $arim is in both. Which is why I
suggested
> > looking at different usages.
> >
> > Yigal
> --
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