Biblical Hebrew Forum

["George F. Somsel" <gfsomsel AT juno.com>]

This has somewhat puzzled me.  Why would one wish to place the
composition of Job at such an early date (assuming for the moment the
reality of the Exodus)?  Even such conservatives as Keil & Delitzsch
thought the work was a product of the exilic period as a M$L LY&R)L.  Is
this simply a general resistance which is to be met with in all cases? 
No JEDP but Moses.  No Maccabean apoclalyptist but Daniel.  No wisdom
writer of Job during the Exile but Moses?  What is the basis for wanting
to retroject this back to the time of the origins of Israel?  Surely it
reflects a patriarchal scene, but this does not necessitate that it be
composed early.

gfsomsel
________

On Thu, 10 Jun 2004 23:23:44 -0400 "Tony Costa" <tmcos AT rogers.com>
writes:
> According to the Babylonian Talmud (b.Baba Bathra 14.14b-15a) it 
> appears
> that Job may have lived during the patriarchal era. This rabbinic 
> source
> argues that Moses not only authored the Pentateuch (which contains 
> the
> patriarchal narratives) but also the book of Job.
> 
> Tony Costa
> 
> 
> >  In support of Dave Washburn's possibility thinking, some ancient
> > orderings of the biblical books put Job right after the 
> Pentateuch,
> > and this may be due to the thought that Job lived in the 
> patriarchal
> > times. A popular conservative dating for Abraham puts his birth 
> in
> > 2166 B.C. By that scheme, if Job had been contemporary with 
> Abraham,
> > then his story could have been written prior to 1700 B.C. I've
> > recently been reading about the canon, and the fact came up that 
> the
> > ancient rabbinic Jews had several conceptions about when Job 
> should
> > be dated, and a patriarchal date was one of them.
> >
> > Yours,
> > Harold Holmyard
> >
> 
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