Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Noam Eitan <bhebrew AT yahoo.com>]

Peter Kirk <peterkirk AT qaya.org> wrote: 
On 07/06/2004 12:39, VC wrote:

>Dear Listmembers,
>
>Just wanted to share a thought. What always puzzled me in the Tanakh - and 
>this turn is most often encountered in Isaiah - is the reference to certain 
>islands. They are clearly hostile to the Jews, ...
>

>Where does it say this?

Many of the 36 references to Islands in the Tanakh are hostile, particularly 
in the prophets. But it's not so much that there is any evidence they were 
hostile to the Judeans, but rather that the prophets were hostile to them, 
and even this hostility was not specific but often part of a generalized 
Yahwistic hostility to other nations who will be taught a lesson one day 
about Yahweh's superiority. I think Jeremiah 31:10 is emblematic - 'Islands' 
stand for the remotest corners of the earth (and Yahweh's message and score 
settling will reach EVEN as far as the islands.) - Noam Eitan, Brooklyn, NY




                
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From: Noam Eitan <bhebrew AT yahoo.com>
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Subject: [b-hebrew] Re: Ashera: ?Ashtoret Tzidon
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Patrina <patrina AT bestmail.us> wrote: 
>LOL. Well Noam, maybe you're the person to ask whether Ashtoret of
Tzidon (1 Kings 11:5) is the same as Ashera, Queen of Heaven? 

Ashtoret of the Zidonians appears 9 times in the TaNaKh and is different from 
the Canaanite Ashera (40 times) - different locals, different cults, 
completely different lexemes (it only looks similar in English.)

>I think there's a word play on the fertility goddess in Deut 7:13, 28:4, 18, 
>and
51, where "ashterot tzon" is translated as 'flocks of your sheep and
goats' in my Stone edition Tanach. As far as I can tell, this occurs
nowhere else, 

True.

>only in Deuteronomy in connection with fertility. As is
fitting for an all-powerful deity, YHWH subsumes the attributes of the
surrounding deities through the pen of the the Deuteronomist in this
example (I think).

Either that, or the expression lost its pagan connotation by then. But I 
wouldn't call it a word play, I don't believe these 4 references consciously 
make pagan allusions of some kind.

Noam Eitan, Brooklyn, NY

 



                
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>From kwrandolph AT email.com  Mon Jun  7 20:59:05 2004
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From: "Karl Randolph" <kwrandolph AT email.com>
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I understand this term to mean to arrive, in other words, not just to come, 
but to come and be present. The hiphil is causative, to cause to arrive, i.e. 
to bring.

Karl W. Randolph.

----- Original Message -----
From: "wattswestmaas" <wattswestmaas AT eircom.net>

> 
> Maurice can you briefly explain this emmendation by Dahood.
> 
>  . By contrast 'atâ is used only twenty times, twenty-one times if one
> accepts the emendation proposed by Dahood for Ps 74:9, "Our signs we do not
> see, there is no longer a prophet, and no one has "come" ('ittanû > 'atanû)
> who knows how long." Eighteen of the twenty are in the Qal and two in the
> Hiphil (Isa 21:14; Jer 12:9) with the meaning "to bring."
-- 
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