Biblical Hebrew Forum

["UUC" <unikom AT paco.net>]

Thanks for bringing it up, Liz. I changed the phrase to:

And he gave the wicked his tomb, and the rich - his altars


Best regards,

Vadim



> 
> > Dear Liz,
> > 
> > I've also thought of a simple example to illustrate absence 
> > of the dating case preposition. There is a perfect analogy in English:
> > 
> > he gave his tomb to the wicked
> > 
> > but
> > 
> > he gave the wicked his tomb
> > 
> > without "to" - or le
> > 
> > 
> > Best regards,
> > 
> > Vadim
> 
> This is called the Great Dative Shift in English.
> At some point the dative shifted from the end of the 
> sentence (in which the preposition was required)
> to right after the verb and the preposition was dropped.
> It still is the dative tho.
> Also, the fact that the Greek uses the accusative case
> means that they are reading )et, not )it. 
> But I can't translate it without putting it in the accusative
> myself, so there you are.
> As for the past tense, I object to the notion of a prophetic
> perfect. People who translate these by the future are 
> reading their own hopes and dreams into the text. A
> very unreliable way to proceed. Isaiah 9:1 was offered
> as an example. Those are perfects and refer to the
> events of Tiglath-Pileser III. 
> Liz Fried
> A2
> 
> 
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