Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Lisbeth S. Fried" <lizfried AT umich.edu>]

> Dear Liz,
> 
> I've also thought of a simple example to illustrate absence 
> of the dating case preposition. There is a perfect analogy in English:
> 
> he gave his tomb to the wicked
> 
> but
> 
> he gave the wicked his tomb
> 
> without "to" - or le
> 
> 
> Best regards,
> 
> Vadim

This is called the Great Dative Shift in English.
At some point the dative shifted from the end of the 
sentence (in which the preposition was required)
to right after the verb and the preposition was dropped.
It still is the dative tho.
Also, the fact that the Greek uses the accusative case
means that they are reading )et, not )it. 
But I can't translate it without putting it in the accusative
myself, so there you are.
As for the past tense, I object to the notion of a prophetic
perfect. People who translate these by the future are 
reading their own hopes and dreams into the text. A
very unreliable way to proceed. Isaiah 9:1 was offered
as an example. Those are perfects and refer to the
events of Tiglath-Pileser III. 
Liz Fried
A2