Biblical Hebrew Forum

[Peter Kirk <peterkirk AT qaya.org>]

On 13/05/2004 12:19, Harold R. Holmyard III wrote:

> Dear Peter,
>
> > > ...
> > >
> > > )$RY HGWY )$R YHWH )LHYW
> > > H(M BHR LNXLH LW
> > >
> > > ...
>
> HH: Yes, I think it does hold up. If there were an understood "whom," 
> as you suggest is possible, then one would expect the antecedent to 
> the understood relative pronoun to directly precede the relative 
> clause. Here the antecedent would seem to be YHWH, which does not 
> directly precede the clause. ...


Not necessarily. The antecedent could be "their God", i.e. "their God, 
whom they chose for themselves", with the relative clause explaining 
(rather than restricting) the meaning of "their God". Also the rule that 
the antecedent immediately follows the relative clause is not absolute, 
even in English. But then I am not trying to argue for this interpretation.


--
Peter Kirk
peter AT qaya.org (personal)
peterkirk AT qaya.org (work)
http://www.qaya.org/