Biblical Hebrew Forum

[nachmanl AT juno.com]

"What is ambiguous about this verse?
The two verbs "shalah" and "bahar" are in synonymous 
parallelism, therefore
the subject of both is identical. Moreover, it's a psalm, a temple song, and
temple poets would naturally have praised one of their own. Shall I cite
other cases of such in Psalms?
Sincerely,
Jonathan D. Safren
Dept. of Biblical Studies
Beit Berl College"


 
Not semantically ambiguous. Just syntactically ambiguous, which is easily 
demonstrated. While there is parellism between the verbs (not entirely 
synonymous, Bahar doesn't mean what Shalah does and intensifies it, though 
the election of Aharon would be "subordinate" to Moshe, and Shalah means a 
whole lot of different things throughout Ps 105) but on the level of 
phonological parallelism (as in Kselman,Ceresko,Watson, Schokel, Adele 
Berlin's, ideas of sound pairs, semantic-sonant chiasmus, etc.):

AvdO//Bahar bO would an assonantic and semantic-grammatical parallelism of 
its own, both as sound pairs and genitive agreement or synonomy. So there are 
several levels of parallelism here.

That's why I wondered about possible multivalence.
Nachman