Biblical Hebrew Forum

["Harold R. Holmyard III" <hholmyard AT ont.com>]

Dear Peter,

> > > > )$RY HGWY )$R YHWH )LHYW
> > > > H(M BHR LNXLH LW
> > > >
> > > > ...
> >
> > HH: Yes, I think it does hold up. If there were an understood 
> > "whom," as you suggest is possible, then one would expect the 
> > antecedent to the understood relative pronoun to directly precede 
> > the relative clause. Here the antecedent would seem to be YHWH, 
> > which does not directly precede the clause. ...
>
>
> Not necessarily. The antecedent could be "their God", i.e. "their 
> God, whom they chose for themselves", with the relative clause 
> explaining (rather than restricting) the meaning of "their God". 
> Also the rule that the antecedent immediately follows the relative 
> clause is not absolute, even in English. But then I am not trying to 
> argue for this interpretation.

HH: O.K., thanks, now I understand your thinking. I am glad you are 
not arguing for the interpretation, for I still find it quite 
awkward. One would expect either )$R to precede H(M or BW to follow 
BHR with the proposed interpretation.

                                Yours,
                                Harold Holmyard