Biblical Hebrew Forum

["George Athas" <gathas AT hotkey.net.au>]

> George,
> I'm not sure I follow you here.  If it's not a "distinct type of waw" then
how
> does it alter the aspect of the verb?  Also, how do you go about
identifying
> the verb element as either a preterite or a "pure imperfect YIQTOL"?  And
I
> don't see WeYIQTOL described; how does it fit into this schema?  Please
> develop the idea further...

Hi Dave!

The waw does not alter the aspect of the verb at all. The verbs themselves
are aspectually different. That is, the Imperfect (incomplete action, modus
irrealis) is distinct in aspect from the Preterite (past), even without the
waw. The way to tell the difference is evident from the shorter forms of the
Preterite, such as the III-Heh forms. Otherwise, the two verbs appear
identical most of the time; the only way to tell them apart is by the way
the Masoretes have pointed the waw's.


Best regards,

GEORGE ATHAS
Lecturer in Biblical Languages
Southern Cross College
Sydney, Australia